Orthopaedic Surgery MCQs

73 Pages·2006·0.43 MB·English

Orthopaedic Surgery MCQs

www.mataryonline.com
MCQs 6) Tuberculosis of the spine most likely originates from:
a. Intervertebral disk.
b. Cancellous vertebral body.
c. Ligamentous structures.
1) Origin of bone is from: d. Paravertebral soft tissue.
a. Ectoderm.
b. Mesoderm. 7) In Pott's spine, the disease starts in the:
c. Endoderm. a. Intervertebral disk.
d. All of the above. b. Anterior vertebral margin.
c. Posterior vertebral margin.
2) Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by: d. Paravertebral soft tissue.
a. Staph aureus.
b. S. pyogenes. 8) Melon seed bodies in joint fluid are characteristic of:
c. H. influenzae. a. Rheumatoid arthritis.
d. Salmonella. b. Tuberculous arthritis.
c. Septic arthritis.
3) Acute osteomyelitis usually begins at: d. None of the above.
a. Epiphysis.
b. Metaphysis. 9) The earliest sign of TB hip in X-ray is:
c. Diaphysis. a. Narrow joint space.
d. Any of the above. b. Irregular moth eaten femoral head.
c. Periarticular osteoporosis.
4) What is not True of acute pyogenic osteomyelitis: d. Dislocation.
a. Trauma is a predisposing factor.
b. Common infecting agent is Staph. Aureus. 10) Healing of tuberculous arthritis can lead to:
c. Infection is usually blood borne. a. Calcification.
d. All are true. b. Fibrous ankylosis.
c. Boney ankylosis.
5) What is not True of Brodie's abscess: d. None of the above.
a. A form of chronic osteomyelitis.
b. Intermittent pain and swelling. 11) Osteoid osteoma originates from:
c. Common to diaphysis. a. Periosteum.
d. Excision is very often required. b. Cortex.
c. Medullary cavity.
d. All of the above.
1
www.mataryonline.com
12) Sun ray appearance of osteosarcoma is because of: 18) An adamantinoma historically contains:
a. Periosteal reaction. a. Squamous cell rests.
b. Osteonecrosis. b. Pallisading cells.
c. Calcification along vessels. c. Cells resembling basilar cells.
d. None of the above. d. All of the above.

19) Osteomalacia predominantly affects the:
13) Bone metastasis in male commonly arises from
a. Spine.
cancer of:
b. Pelvis.
a. Lung.
c. Skull bones.
b. Prostate.
d. Metatarsals.
c. Kidney.
d. Thyroid.
20) The enzyme found in osteoclasts but not in osteoblasts
is:
14) Osteoblastic bone secondaries commonly arise from
a. Alkaline phosphatase.
cancer of:
b. Acid phosphatase.
a. Breast.
c. Elastase.
b. Lung.
d. Cytochrome oxidase.
c. Prostate.
d. Adrenal.
21) A Gigli saw is:
a. An electrically driven circular bone saw.
15) Bone metastasis can be best evaluated by:
b. A pneumatically driven bone saw.
a. X-ray.
c. A short straight bone saw.
b. 99mTC bone scan.
d. A long twisted wire bone saw.
c. 111Indium scan.
d. Calcium-alkaline phosphatase elevation.
22) Osteoclasis can be used to:
a. Correct deformity of the tibia due to rickets.
16) The synonym for Paget's disease is:
b. Curette an osteoclastoma.
a. Osteitis fibrosa.
c. Correct deformity.
b. Osteitis proliferans.
d. Correct a ricketery rosary.
c. Osteitis deformans.
d. None of the above.
23) In Dupuytren's contracture which one of the
following statements incorrect:
17) Multiple myeloma tumor cells resemble:
a. It is a contracture of the flexor tendons to the ring and
a. Granulocytes.
little fingers.
b. Plasma cells.
b. It is a contracture of the palmar fascia.
c. Lymphocytes.
c. It may occur in the plantar fascia.
d. Chondrocytes.
d. There is an association with cirrhosis of the liver.
2
www.mataryonline.com
24) In an adult patient with a fracture of the shaft of the 29) Internal reduction is considered in presence of:
femur: a. Reduction impossible to the achieved or maintained.
a. No blood can be lost without obvious swelling. b. Healing is expected to be delayed.
b. No blood can be lost without obvious bruising. c. Pathological fracture.
c. Two liters of blood can be lost without obvious swelling d. All of the above.
or bruising.
30) Which one of these statements is True in diagnosis
d. There is no possibility of death from hemorrhagic
of congenital hip dislocation in the first few days of life:
shock.
a. It is impossible to diagnose it.
25) A greenstick fracture: b. The sign of telescoping is the best way of diagnosing it.
a. Occurs chiefly in the elderly. c. It is possible to diagnose it by the Van Rosen/Barlow
b. Does not occur in children. Test.
c. Is a spiral fracture- of tubular bone. d. The Trendelenberg test is the most useful.
d. Is a fracture where part of the cortex is intact and part
31) Trendelenburg's sign is used in the diagnosis of:
is crumpled or cracked.
a. Varicose veins.
26) Spiral fracture is due to: b. Congenital dislocation of the hip.
a. Blunt trauma. c. Carcinoma of the stomach.
b. Axial compression. d. Pulmonary embolism.
c. Twist.
32) If an unstable hip is detected at birth the
d. Direct impact.
management policy is:
27) The single most important factor in fracture healing a. Do nothing and re-examine every six months as only a
is: minority of hips develop into a persistent dislocation.
a. Correct bone alignment. b. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 45° flexion and
b. Accurate reduction. adduction.
c. Immobilization. c. Use a splint to keep the hip joint in 90° flexion and
d. Organization of clot. abduction.
d. Advise operative stabilization.
28) Immobilization is not required in fracture involving:
a. Scapula. 33) The essential examination of the hip in order to
b. Wings of ilium. clinch the diagnosis of chronic slipped femoral
c. Rib. epiphysis is:
d. Proximal humerus in elderly. a. Measuring for shortening of the leg.
e. All of the above. b. Palpation of the femoral head.
c. A-P plain x-ray view of the hip.
d. Lateral x-ray view of the hip.

3
www.mataryonline.com
34) Shenton's line is a sign applicable to: 39) The term delayed union is employed when the
a. The detection of shortening of the leg on physical fracture fails to unite within:
examination. a. 1.5 times the normal union time.
b. A radiological feature of the pelvis applied to the b. Twice the normal union time.
diagnosis of congenital dislocation of the hip. c. 2.5 times the normal union time.
c. A radiological feature of the lungs applied to the d. None of the above.
diagnosis of pulmonary vein thrombosis.
40) First bone to ossify in foetal life is:
d. A physical sign applied to the diagnosis of adrenal
a. Femur.
deficiency.
b. Tibia.
35) Perthes' disease is common to age group of: c. Clavicle.
a. 1-5. d. Sternum.
b. 6-10.
41) What is True of clavicle fracture:
c. 11-15.
a. Non-union is rare.
d. 16-20.
b. Malunion is of no functional significance.
36) The average duration of Perthes' disease is: c. Reduction even if achieved is difficult to maintain.
a. 1-2 years. d. All are true.
b. 3- 4 years.
42) The joint most likely to have recurrent dislocation is:
c. 1 month - 6 months.
a. Ankle.
d. 6 months - 1 year.
b. Knee.
37) In Perthes' disease the hip movements restricted are: c. Shoulder.
a. Abduction and external rotation. d. Patella.
b. Abduction and internal rotation.
43) Anterior dislocation of shoulder may be complicated
c. Adduction and external rotation.
by:
d. All of the above.
a. Brachial plexus injury.
38) The sequestrum in X-ray appears: b. Tear of rotator cuff.
a. Dense. c. Fracture head of humerus.
b. Light. d. All of the above.
c. Isodense as surrounding bone.
44) What is not True about fracture surgical neck of
d. Any of the above.
humerus:
a. Occurs due to fall on outstretched hand.
b. Common to children.
c. Osteoporosis is an important risk factor.
d. Non-union is uncommon.

4
www.mataryonline.com
45) Radial nerve palsy may occur in fr of humerus 51) Fracture involving which part of humerus can cause
involving: delayed ulnar palsy:
a. Surgical neck. a. Shaft.
b. Shaft. b. Surgical neck.
c. Lower end. c. Medial epicondyle.
d. At all of the above locations. d. Lateral epieondyle.
46) The most common form of supracondylar fracture 52) The deformity of wrist in Colles' fracture is:
humerus in children is of which type: a. Madelung's deformity.
a. Flexion. b. Dinner fork deformity.
b. Extension. c. Buttonaire deformity.
c. Combination of A & B d. None of the above.
d. None of the above.
53) Colles' fracture can be complicated by late rupture of:
47) Myositis ossificans commonly occurs around: a. Extensor pollicis longus.
a. Shoulder. b. Abductor pollicis longus.
b. Elbow. c. Adductor pollicis longus.
c. Wrist. d. Flexor pollicis longus.
d. Knee.
54) What is True of Sudeck's atrophy of hand:
48) Volkman's ischemia commonly occurs following:
a. Hand is painful and swollen.
a. Fracture shaft humerus.
b. Osteoporosis of carpals and metacarpals.
b. Supracondylar fracture.
c. There is increased blood flow to para-articular areas.
c. Colles' fracture.
d. Cervical sympathectomy may be of help.
d. Monteggia fracture.
e. All are true.
49) The single dependable sign of early Volkmann's
55) The carpal bone most commonly fractured is:
contracture is:
a. Triquetrum.
a. Cyanosis of fingers.
b. Hamate.
b. Obliteration of radial pulse.
c. Capitate.
c. Paralysis of flexor muscles of forearm.
d. Scaphoid.
d. Pallor of fingers.
e. Pain. 56) Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel
syndrome:
50) Cubitus valgus of elbow commonly follows fracture
a. Ulnar.
of:
b. Median.
a. Lateral condyle.
c. Radial.
b. Medial condyle.
d. All of the above.
c. Capitalum.
d. Lower third of humerus.

5
www.mataryonline.com
57) The most common injury following pelvic fracture is 63) Which of the following is not True of intertrochanteric
of: fracture of femur:
a. Bladder. a. Limb shortening.
b. Urethra. b. Malunion.
c. Rectum. c. Avascular necrosis of femoral head.
d. Vagina. d. Internal fixation is preferred.
58) Limb shortening with adduction and internal rotation 64) Most common complication of fracture shaft femur
occurs in which type of hip dislocation: is:
a. Anterior. a. Malunion.
b. Posterior. b. Nonunion.
c. Central. c. Knee stiffness.
d. All of the above. d. Fat embolism.
59) Nelaton's line joins anterior superior iliac spine to: 65) Spontaneous bleeding into joints in haemophilia
a. Xiphisternum. occurs when factor VI level is less than:
b. Pubic tubercle. a. 50%.
c. Ischial tuberosity. b. 25%.
d. Ischial spine. c. 10%.
d. 5%.
60) Bryant's triangle helps to assess:
a. Fracture neck of femur. 66) Recurrence of Baker's cyst should make the surgeon
b. Iliac crest displacement. suspect:
c. Trochanteric displacement. a. Neoplastic change.
d. None of the above. b. Undiagnosed pathology within knee.
c. Incomplete removal of the cyst.
61) Normal neck-shaft angle of femur is:
d. The communication to the joint is persisting.
a. 90°.
b. 120°. 67) Flexion of distal interphalangeal joint with fixing the
c. 150°. proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) tests:
d. 170°. a. Flexor digitorum profundus.
b. Flexor digitorum superficials.
62) Fracture femoral neck can be diagnosed from:
c. Palmaris longus.
a. Limb shortening.
d. All of the above.
b. External rotation.
c. Abduction.
d. A + B.

6
www.mataryonline.com
68) Stenosing tenovaginitis commonly affects: 73) Bennett's fracture is
a. Abductor pollicis. a. reversed Colles' fracture
b. Flexor pollicis longus. b. fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist
c. Opponens pollicis. c. fracture of the radial styloid (chauffeur's fracture)
d. All of the above. d. fracture dislocation of the first metacarpal
e. cause of mallet finger
69) A sequestrum is
a. a piece of soft dead tissue 74) Supracondylar fracture of the humerus in a child
b. a piece of dead skin a. is due to a fall on the point of the elbow
c. a dead tooth b. is usually compound
d. a piece of dead bone c. requires admission of the patient after reduction
e. a retained swab d. requires immediate open reduction
e. is a fracture dislocation
70) Union of a simple uncomplicated transverse fracture
of the tibia in an adult normally takes 75) A fracture of the midshaft of the clavicle is best
a. 6 weeks treated by
b. 8 weeks a. clavicle rings
c. 12 weeks b. a figure-of-eight bandage
d. 18 weeks c. open reduction and plating
e. 26 weeks d. an intramedullary nail
e. a broad arm sling and analgesics
71) Fractures which do not impact include
a. fracture of tile vault of the skull 76) A Pott's fracture is a type of fracture of the
b. a compression fracture a. wrist
c. a simple fracture b. ankle
d. a transverse fracture of the patella c. spine
e. fracture of the neck of the femur d. foot
e. skull
72) Colles' fracture is
a. a fracture of the clavicle 77) Treatment of a severe comminuted fracture of the
b. a fracture about the ankle joint patella includes
c. common in elderly women a. physiotherapy alone
d. a fracture of the head of the radius b. insertion of a figure-of-eight tension band
e. fracture of die scaphoid c. patellectomy
d. inserting screws or wire
e. skin traction
7
www.mataryonline.com
78) Malunion of a fracture is 83) Pott's paraplegia is due to
a. a fracture which unites in a position of deformity a. hematomyelia following trauma
b. delayed union of a fracture b. damage to the cord by a piece of bone when vertebrae
c. non-union of a fracture collapse in tuberculosis of the spine
d. followed by pseudoarthrosis c. tuberculous pus and angulation in tuberculosis of the
e. due to tuberculosis spine
d. damage to die corda equina after a fall
79) Volkmann's contracture
e. fracture dislocation of cervical vertebrae
a. affects the palmar fascia
b. develops at the ankle in a case of chronic venous ulcer 84) Still's disease is
c. follows ischemia of the forearm muscles a. spastic diplegia
d. is due to excessive scarring of the skin of the axilla b. rheumatoid arthritis in childhood
following a burn c. rheumatoid arthritis in the elderly
e. follows ulnar nerve palsy d. post-traumatic bone formation in the lateral ligament of
the knee
80) A Brodie's abscess is
e. synonymous with Reiter's disease
a. a subperiosteal abscess due to infection of the mastoid
air cells 85) A benign tumor forming osteoid is
b. a type pf breast abscess a. a synovioma
c. a chronic abscess of the bone b. a chondroma
d. an abscess arising in the inguinal lymph nodes c. an osteoma
e. an abscess forming in an infected varicose vein d. a fibroma
e. an adenoma
81) The initial abnormality in primary osteoarthritis is
a. in the synovial membrane 86) Ewing's tumor affecting the humerus
b. sclerosis of cartilage a. is a metastasis from carcinoma of the thyroid
c. fibrillation of cartilage b. should be treated by immediate amputation
d. an osteophyte c. looks like a cut onion on x-ray
e. a pannus d. has a soap-bubble appearance on x-ray
e. displays sun-ray spicules on x-ray
82) The initial abnormality in rheumatoid arthritis is
a. fibrillation of cartilage 87) Barlow's sign is related to the diagnosis of
b. sclerosis of cartilage a. talipes equinus varus
c. in the synovial membrane b. congenital dislocation of the hip
d. in the capsule c. ulnar nerve palsy
e. proliferation of bone d. genu varum
e. fractured neck of femur
8
www.mataryonline.com
88) The reported incidence of unstable hips per 1000 at 93) Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease is
birth is as much as a. osteochondritis of the spine
a. 0.5 b. tuberculosis of the hip joint
b. 2-5 c. slipped proximal femoral epiphysis
c. 8-20 d. osteochondritis of the proximal femoral epiphysis
d. 25-30 e. osteomalacia
e. 35-40
94) The name associated with joint neuropathy is that of
89) The word talipes refers to a. Cushing
a. long feet with spidery toes b. Osier
b. knock knee c. Moon
c. flat feet d. Charcot
d. hammer toes e. Addison
e. club feet
95) Adrenocorticosteroids administered in excess cause
90) Bone dysplasia is due strictly to a. osteoporosis
a. faulty nutrition b. osteosclerosis
b. osteomyelitis c. osteochondritis
c. parathyroid tumor d. endochondral ossification
d. trauma e. osteosarcoma
e. faulty development
96) 'Tennis elbow' is the term used for
91) Idiopathic scoliosis is a a. olecranon bursitis
a. lateral curvature of the spine b. 'non-articular rheumatism' of the extensor muscles of
b. rotation of the spine forearm attached to lateral epicondyle of the humerus
c. lateral curvature with rotation of the spine c. myositis ossificans of the supinator muscle
d. flexion deformity of the spine d. a fractured head of radius
e. congenital disease with hemivertebrae e. ulnar nerve neuritis
92) A Milwaukee brace can be used in 97) An adventitious bursa is
a. sacro-iliac strain a. an anatomical bursa overlying any joint
b. derangement of the teeth b. a type of degeneration of adventitia of popliteal artery
c. a patient with an above knee amputation c. an acquired bursa generated from connective tissue
d. scoliosis d. a pseudocyst in the lesser sac (omental bursa)
e. fractured clavicle e. an infected knee
9
www.mataryonline.com