Mosby's ReView Questions & Answers for Veterinary Boards

133 Pages·2009·46.04 MB·English

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Mosby's
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ReView
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Questions &A nswers
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for Veterinary Boards
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Clinical Sciences
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Dedicated to Publishing Excel'ence
~ A Times Mirror
.. Company
oContributors
Publisher: John A. Schrefer
Executive Editor: Linda L. Duncan
Senior Developmental Editor: Teri Merchant c
Project Manager: Linda McKinley
Production Editor: Julie Zipfel
Editing and Production: Top Graphics
Design: Renee Duenow .
Manufacturing Manager: Unda Ierardi
Cover desigrl: Iennifer Marmarinos bIntroduction S.T. Finn-Bodner, DVM, MS, Dipl ACVR
Associate Professor, Department of Radiology, Auburn Uni·
Paul W. Pratt, VMD versity, Auburn, Alabama
Executive Editor, Mosby-Year Book, St. Louis, Missouri
o judith A. Hudson, DVM, PhD, Dipl ACVR
jeffrey L. Rothstein, DVM, MBA Associate Professor, Department of Radiology, Auburn Uni
Hospital Director, Elm Animal Hospital, Roseville, Michi versity, Auburn, Alabama
gan
t William R. Klemm, DVM, PhD
SECOND EDmON Anesthesiology Professor, College of Veterinary Medicine, Texas A & M
Copyright © 1998 by Mosby-Year Book, Inc. t University, College Station, Texas
Previous edition copyrighted 1993 Colin I. Dunlop, BVSc, Dipl ACVA Martha L. Moon, DVM, MS, Dipl ACVR
o
Advanced Anesthesia Specialists, Hunters Hill, New South Associate Professor, Virginia· Maryland Regional College of
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or Wales, Australia Veterinary Medicine, Virginia Polytechnic Institute,
transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording. or
otherwise, without prior written permission from the publisher. Etta M. Wertz, DVM, MS, Dipl ACVA Blacksburg, Virginia
Permission to photocopy or reproduce solely for internal or personal use is permitted for libraries k Staff Anesthesiologist, Alameda East Veterinary Hospital, Paul W. Pratt, VMD
or other users registered with the Copyright Clearance Center. provided that the base fee of $4.00 Denver, Colorado Executive Editor, Mosby-Year Book, St. Louis, Missouri
per chapter plus $.10 per page is paid directly to the Copyright Clearance Center, 222 Rosewood
Dr., Danvers, MA 01923. This consent does not extend to other kinds of copying. such as copying l Clinical Pathology Donald E. Thrall, DVM, PhD, Dipl ACVR
for general distribution, for advertising or promotional purposes, for creating new collected works, Professor of Radiology, College of Veterinary Medicine,
or for resalc. a Carol B. Grindem, DVM, PhD, Dipl ACVP North Carolina State University, Raleigh, North Carolina
Printed in the United States of America Associate Professor of Clinical Pathology, College ofVeteri Larry Patrick Tilley, DVM, Dipl ACVIM
Composition by Ibp Graphics nary Medicine, North Carolina State University, Raleigh, President, Vetmedfax Consultation Services, Santa Fe, New
Printing/binding by R.R. DonneDey & Sons Company . North Carolina Mexico
Mosby-Year Book, Inc. w Barry Thomas Mitzner, DVM Erik R. Wisner, DVM, Dipl ACVR
11630 Westline Industrial Drive President, Southeast Vetlab, Inc., Miami, Florida Assistant Professor, Department of Radiology, School of
St. Lottis, Missouri 63146 Rose E. Raskin, DVM, PhD, Dipl ACVP Medicine, and Department of Surgicai and Radiological
Ubrary of Congress Cataloging In Publication Data Associate Professor and Service Chief of Clinical Pathology Sciences, School of Veterinary Medicine, University of
Laboratory, Department of Physiological Sciences, Uni California, Davis, California
Clinical sciences / edited by Paul W. Pratt.-2nd ed. w versity of Florida, Gainesville, Florida
Hematology and Cytology
p. cm.-(Mosby's review questions & answers for veterinary
boards) Diagnostic Imaging
Includes bibliographical refcrences. Rick L. Cowell, DVM, MS, Dipl ACVP
ISBN 0·6151-7462·4 and Recordings Professor, Department of Anatomy, Pathology, and Phar
1. Veterinary medicine-United States-Examinations. questions, w macology, College of Veterinary Medicine, Oklahoma
etc. l. Pratt, Paul W. 1I. Series. john M. Bowen, DVM, PhD State University, Stillwater. Oklahoma
SF759.C56 1997
Professor of Pharmacology and 1bxicology, Associate Dean
636.069'076-<1c21 97-371C2IP8 for Research and Graduate Affairs, College of Veterinary W. jean Dodds, DVM
Medicine, University of Georgia, Athens, Georgia President, HEMOPET, Irvine, California
97 98 99 00 01 / 9 6 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
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vi CONTRIBUTORS
m
Brad L. Hines, DVM Thomas J. Burke, DVM, MS
Internist, Metroplex Veterinary Centre, Irving, Texas Professor of Medicine, College of Veterinary Merlicine, Uni
versity of Illinois, Urbana, Illinois; Consultant, Capitol
Immunology Illini Veterinary Services, Ltd., and lincoln Park Zoo
Leslie A. Dierhauf, VMD
Laurel J. Gershwin, DVM, PhD, Dipl ACVM o
Wildlife and Conservation BiolOgist, United States Fish and Preface
Professor ofImmunology, VMTH Service Chief, Clinical
Wildlife Service, Albuquerque, New Mexico
Immunology and Virology, School of Veterinary Medi
cine, University of California, Davis, California Maarten Drost, DVM
c
Professor of Reproduction, College of Veterinary Medicine,
Nutrition University of Florida, Gainesville, Florida
Bruce E. Eilts, DVM, MS, Dipl ACT
Linda D. Baker, VMD, MS, Dipl ACVN .
Professor of Theriogenology, Department of Veterinary
Veterinarian, Dairy Production Systems Consultation,
Mertztown, Pennsylvania Clinical Sciences, School of Veterinary Medicine, This series obf five review books was developed to help thusiasm and ingenuity in developing challenging
Louisiana State University, Baton Rouge, Louisiana
candidates prepare for scholastic, licensure, and certi questions are evident throughout the five volumes. Al
Edward A. Moser, VMD, Dipl ACVN Fredric L. Frye, DVM, MSc, CBiol, FIBiol fication examinations. Although the books are not de though I had considered myself fairly well read in our
Veterinary Nutritionist, Veterinary Nutrition Specialists. Visiting Professor at the University of London, University finitive texts, they can help candidates organize their field, I was humbled by the depth and breadth of
Selinsgrove, Pennsylvania o
of Bristol, University of Edinburgh; Former Clinical Pro study preparations and detect areas in which more knowledge illustrated in their questions.
fessor of Medicine, University of California, Davis, Cali study is required. We have gone to great effort to root out all errors
Pharmacology fornia The five-volume series contains over 8,100 ques and ambiguous statements. Despite these precau
ttions, each with an accompanying answer. A short ex tions, however, a number of flaws undoubtedly have
Terrence P. Clark, DVM, PhD Tina Gemeinhardt, DVM
planation or rationale is provided for every answer. escaped notice. We would be grateful if readers would
Assistant Professor, Director, Clinical Pharmacology Ser Huff Animal Hospital, Delta, British Columbia tNew to this edition are additional sections on special notify us of any errors, ambiguities, or questionable
vice, Department of Physiology and Pharmacology,
Stormy Hudelson, DVM, Dipl ABVP ties, thousands of new questions, and updating of all statements in these books. We also encourage readers
Auburn University, Auburn, Alabama Tucson, Arizona oquestions according to current medical and surgical to send their comments or criticism on any aspect of
Lloyd E. Davis, DVM, PhD practices. these books. In this way we can improve the quality of
Professor Emeritus of Clinical Pharmacology, College of David G. Huff, DVM I am indebted to our group of 150 eminently quali future editions.
Consulting Veterinarian, Vancouver Aquarium, Delta,
Veterinary Medicine, University of Illinois, Urbana, illi fied contributors, who have taken the time from their
British Columbia k
nois busy professional and personal lives to carefully craft Paul W. Pratt, l-MD
James D. Letcher, DVM questions on their respective subject areas. Their en- Santa Barbara, California
Sue Hudson Duran, RPh, MS
Okeechobee, Florida
Assistant Professor and Director of Pharmacy, Department l
of Large Animal Surgery and Medicine, Auburn Univer Seyedmehdi Mobini, DVM, MS, Dipl ACT
a
sity, Auburn, Alabama Professor of Veterinary Science, Research/Extension Veteri-
narian, Fort Valley State University, Fort Valley, Georgia
Jim E. Riviere, DVM, PhD
Burroughs Wellcome Distinguished Professor of Veterinary Daniel H. Nielsen, DVM
Pharmacology, College of Veterinary Medicine, North New Berlin Veterinary Hospital, New Berlin, New York .
Carolina State University, Raleigh, North Carolina
Michael B. Paster, DVM w
Avalon Animal Hospital and Bird Clinic, Carson, California
Principles of Surgery
Dorcas O. Schaeffer, DVM, MS, Dipl ACLAM
Thomas P. Colville, DVM, MSc Assistant Professor, Department of Comparative Medicine,
Associate Professor, Director, Veterinary Technology Pro Facility Director, Office of Laboratory Animal Care, Col
w
gram, Department of Veterinary and Microbiological lege of Veterinary Medicine, University of Tennessee,
Science, North Dakota State University, Fargo, North Knoxville, Tennessee
Dakota
Roderick C. Tubbs, DVM, MS, MBA, Dipl ACT, ABVP
Swine Veterinarian, Bowling Green, Kentucky
Theriogenology w
William F. Braun, Jr., DVM, Dipl ACT Toxicology
Veterinarian, Southwest Veterinary Services, Bloomington,
Gary D. Osweiler, DVM, PhD, Dipl ABVT
Wisconsin; Fonnerly Associate Professor, College of Vet
Professor of Veterinary Toxicology, Director, Veterinary Di
erinaryMedicine, University of Missouri, Columbia, Mis
agnostic Laboratory, Iowa State University, Ames, Iowa
souri
vii
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o Contents
c
.
bSECTION 1 SECTION 6
Aulesdrresiology, Nutrition,
1 143
CI. Dunlop, E.M. Wertz L.D. Baker, E.A. Moser
o
SECTION 2 SECTION 7
Clinical Pathology, Pharmacology,
t 35 155
CB. Grindem, B.T. Mitzner, R.E. Raskin T.P. Clark, L.E. Davis, S.H. Duran, J.E. Riviere
t
o
SECTION 3 SECTION 8
Diagnostic Imaging Principles of Surgery,
185
k and Recordings, 63 T.P. Colville
J.M. Bowen, S.T. Finn-Bodner, JA Hudson,
l w'R. Klemm, M.L. Moon, P.W. Pratt, D.E. Thrall, SECTION 9
L.P. Tilley, E.R. Wisner
Theriogenology,
a 199
W.F. Braun, Jr., T.J. Burke, L.A. Dierauf, M. Drost,
SECTION 4 B.E. Eilts, F.L. Frye, T. Gemeinhardt, S. Hudelson,
Hematology and D.G. Huff, J.D. Letcher, S. Mobini, D.H. Nielsen,
.
M.B. Paster, D.O. Schaeffer, R.C Tubbs
Cytology,
w 101
R.L. Cowell, W.J. Dodds, B.L. Hines
SECTION 10
Toxicology,
245
SECTION 5
w G.D. Osweiler
Immunology,
131
L.J. Gershwin
Practice Aulswer Sheets,
w 255
Ix
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SECTION
m 1
oAnesthesiology
c c.1. Dunlop, E.M. Wertz
.
b
Recommended Reading
oHall LW; Clarke KW: Veterinary anaesthesia, ed 9, London, 1992, Bailliere Tindall.
MuirWW, Hubbell IA: Equine anesthesia, St Louis, 1991, Mosby.
Muir WW; Hubbell 1A: Handbook of veterinary anesthesia, ed 2, St Louis, 1996, Mosby.
tShort CEo Principles and practice of veterinary anesthesia, Baltimore, 1987, Williams & Wilkins.
Thurman IC et al: Lumb and Jones' veterinary anesthesia, ed 3, Baltimore, 1996, Williams &
t
Wilkins.
o
',' Practice answer sheets are on pages .255-256.
k
Questions
l c.1. Dunlop
a 1. Which of the following is 1Wt an objective of d. competitive antagonism of acetylcholine
preanesthetic medication? e. stimulating adrenergic activity
a. alleviate or minimize pain
. b. facilitate handling 3. Bradycardia during general anesthesia ofd ogs
w c. minimize undesirable postanesthetic recovery can be treated with intravenous atropine, usually
complications at 0.01 to 0.02 mglkg Iv. If the bradycardia
worsens after atropine administration, the most
d. increase reflex autonomic activity
appropriate course ofa ction is to:
e. decrease the dose of parenteral anesthetic
induction drugs a. repeat the dose after 1 or 2 minutes
w b. wait for atropine to cause its sympathetic
effect
2. Atropine acts on the parasympathetic nervous
sYstem by: c. cease administration of anesthetic and
insufflate with oxygen
w a. depressing formation of acetylcholine d. administer epinephrine intravenously
b. enhancing formation of cholinesterase
e. insert a transvenous pacemaker because the
c. directly inhibiting neurochemical reactions at dog must have sick sinus syndrome
the myoneural junction
Correct answers are on pages 25-33. 1
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2 SECTION 1
Anesthesiology 3
4. One of the differences between atropine and 9. Guaifenesin, a muscle relaxant commonly used 14. Elimination ofa tracurium fromm the body:
d. decreased uterine muscle tone in pregnant
glycopyrrolate is that: for large animal anesthesia,:
a. produces the metabolite laudanosine, which animals
a. glycopyrrolate causes a greater increase in the a. acts at the myoneural junction depresses central nervous system function e. increased ventilation
heart rate than atropine b. causes profound cardiac depression b. is enhanced by its inherent instability at body
b. ghleyacrot pryatrero tlhaaten caaturosepsin ae s maller increase in the c. does not provide analgesia temperature and pHo 19. In dogs appropriate treatment for bradycardia
d. causes respiratory paralysis because of its c. is prolonged in patients with renal disease associated with xylazine administration is:
c. atropine is longer acting than glycopyrrolate muscle relaxant properties only
d. atropine can be antagonized by epinephrine e. can be very effective in small doses d. is prolonged in patients with both renal and a. an intravenous bolus dose of lactated Ringer's
solution
but glycopyrrolate cannot liver disease c
e. gthlyacno aptyrrorpoilnatee has a different site of action 10. A drug with a similar mechanism ofa ction to e. is prolonged following intravenous infusion cb.. iinnttrraavveennoouuss anteroosptiingem ine
guaifenesin is:
. d. intravenous yohimbine
5. One milliliter ofa 10% solution ofa drug contains a. diazepam 15. Aint rtahcaut:r ium has advantages over succinylcholine e. intravenous doxapram
how many milligrams of that drug? b. glycopyrrolate b
a. 10mg/ml cd.. abturtaocruprhiuamno l ba.. iitt dhoase sa nsohto crtaeurs deu graantigolino onfic a cbtlioocnk ade 20. aMnoarlpghesiniae ,a onxdy msoomrpnhoolennec, ea pnrdim feanrtialny ybly p trhoediru ce
b.20mg/ml
e. succinylcholine c. oit does not cause muscle rigidity action on:
c. 1.0 mg/ml d. reversal of succinylcholine requires
d. 0.1 mg/ml administration of neostigmine a. a2 adrenergic receptors
e. 100mg/ml 11. In horses the lethal effects ofg uaifenesin: e. it paralyzes all skeletal muscles to the same b. K-opiate receptors
a. are primarily manifested by respiratory center tdegree c. fl.-opiate receptors
depression d. internuncial neurons in the spinal cord
6. Of the following, which is rwt an action of t
phenothiazine tranquilizers on the nervous b. are not seen because such large volumes must 16. In an anesthetized patient with profound e. a-opiate receptors
system? be administered obradycardia, injection of neostigmine:
a. antiemetic c. raerlea pxraitmioanr irleys mulatinnigf eisnt ereds bpyir saktoerleyt aml umsculsec le a. exacerbates the bradycardia 21. aWgheincth? of the following is the most potent opioid
b. sympathomimetic paralysis b. rapidly resolves the bradycardia
c. potentiate seizures d. are seen at 3 to 4 times the therapeutic dose k c. does not change the heart rate a. meperidine (Demerol)
d. affect the reticular formation and e. do not include cardiac depression d. causes sudden arousal of the anesthetized b. morphine
hypothalamus animal c. oxymorphone (Numorphan)
e. sedation 12. Ify ou administer 350 ml ofa 5% solution of l e. prolongs muscle relaxation d. fentanyl (Sublimaze)
guaifenesin to a 250-kg pony, how many mg/kg a e. butorphanol (Torbugesic)
7. Acepromazine is classified as: would be administered? 17. In the central nervous system, what is the action
a. a phenothiazine tranquilizer a. 35 ofx ylazine or detomidine? 22. Which drug does rwt have a narcotic effect?
b. an anticholinergic b. 250 . a. antagonism of internuncial neurons a. levallorphan
c. an a2-adrenergic agonist c. 70 w b. agonism of fl.-opiate receptors b. naloxone
d. an opioid agonist d. 10 c. antagonism of fl.-opiate receptors c. butorphanol
e. a benzodiazepine e. 100 d. agonism of presynaptic a2 adrenergic d. oxymorphone
receptors e. meperidine
B. In horses acepromazine should be used with 13. Atracurium: w e. antagonism of presynaptic a2 adrenergic
caution in: a. reduces the requirement for inhalation receptors 23. Concerning opioids, such as oxymorphone, which
a. pregnant mares anesthesia because of its analgesic properties statement is least accurate?
lB. In 'horses and cattle xylazine premedication
b. horses with preexisting second-degree b. is a central-acting muscle relaxant a. They are good analgesics.
causes:
atrioventricular block c. crosses the placental barrierw b. They cause bradycardia.
c. working stallions d. causes bradycardia following intravenous a. increased cardiac output and heart rate c. They improve ventilation.
d. adult draft horses administration b. second -degree atrioventricular block and d. They depress laryngeal function.
e. arthroscopic surgical patients positioned in e. should not be used unless patients are bradycardia e. They cause minimal myocardial depression.
dorsal recumbency receiving intermittent positive-pressure c. hypoglycemia
ventilation
© 1998 Mosby-Year Book, Inc. Photocopying is prohibited by law.
Correct answers are on pages 25-33.
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4 SECTION 1
Anesthesiology 5
24. Parenterally administered opiate analgesics, such c. does not depress respiration as much as pure 33. After thiobarbiturate anesthesiam, prolonged
as morphine, relieve pain by: fL-opioid agonists (e.g., morphine) recovery: d. It is associated with excessive muscle tone, so
diazepam should also be administered.
d. is subject to the limitations of the Harrison
a. inhibiting transmission of afferent impulses Narcotic Act a. may occur in thin, emaciated patients e. It can cause increased laryngeal reflexes and
b. interfering with perception of pain e. provides better visceral analgesia in dogs than b. should be treated with mechanical ventilation coughing, especially at light anesthetic levels.
c. interfering with the response to pain does oxymorphone c. may be due to hypeorproteinemia
d. inhibiting initiation or transmission of d. should be treated with neuroleptics 37. Propofol:
impulses and disrupting perception of such
impulses 29. Narcotic analgesics for horses include morphine, e. may be due to hyperthermia a. lowers the seizure threshold
e. eliminating the source of pain impulses pentazocine, and butorphanol. Concerning these c b. increases muscle tone
three drugs, which statement is most accurate? 34. Thiobarbiturates cause: c. causes renal toxiCity
25. Oxymorphone: a. They are all semisynthetic agents with opioid a. increased intracranial pressure d. causes postinduction apnea
agonistic and antagonistic effects. b. renal to.xicity e. increases intraocular pressure
a. provides rapid induction of anesthesia and is b. They have no potential for abuse by people, so c. bradycardia
suitable for patients with upper airway their use is not restricted. b
obstruction d. postinduction apnea 38. Anesthetic induction with propofol causes:
c. They may cause central nervous system
b. can be administered intravenously in excitement if administered to an otherwise e. increased intraocular pressure a. bradycardia
creosmtrbaiinnat tsiuointa wblieth t od iaaczheipeavme e fnodr octhreamchiecaall d. Tunhteriarn eqffueiclitsz ecda nh obres ea.n tagonized with 35. Foollowing anesthetic induction with thiopental in cb.. hinycproetaesnesdi oinnt rianc hryanpioavlo plreemssicu rpea tients
intubation yohimbine. a dog, you intubate the animal and administer d. hypertension in normovolemic patients
c. does not cause significant respiratory e. They increase gastrointestinal motility. halothane and oxygen via a circle system. The dog e. decreased cardiac output from myocardial
depression timmediately becomes apneic. The most
depreSSion
d. increases vagal tone and heart rate appropriate course ofa ction is to:
30. Which drug can antagonize opiate-induced t
e. eisn ldikoetlrya ctoh ecaalu isnet ulabraytniogons pasm during respiratory depression? oa. vinesnttiitluatteio inn taetr m12i tbtreenat tphoss/mitiivne,- aptr ae svsoulruem e of 39. cInh adroagcst erreicsotivcearyll fyr: om propofol anesthesia is
a. yohimbine 100 rnl/kg
26. In dogs intravenous administration off entanyl b. naloxone b. turn off the flow of halothane because the dog a. smooth and rapid
causes: c. ephedrine is deeply anesthetized b. rapid and accompanied by excitement
k
d. etorphine (M 99) c. stimulate upper airway reflexes by gently c. rapid but rough because redistribution sites
a. hypotension
e. dopamine moving the endotracheal tube backward and become saturated
b. tachycardia
forward d. rapid because propofol is highly soluble in
c. atrioventricular block l
d. institute intermittent positive-pressure water and rapidly excreted in urine
d. bradycardia 31. Thiobarbiturates: a ventilation at 2 or 3 breathS/min, at a volume e. rapid and accompanied by marked ataxia on
e. decreased myocardial contractility a. are characterized by slow induction of of 10 rnl/kg standing
anesthesia e. administer another one-quarter dose of
27. Ftoo all odwogin, ygo inut orabsveernvoeu ms aardkmeidn bisrtardayticoanrd oifaf.e Tnhtea nyl cb.. smhaoyu pldr ondeuvceer bcear udsiaecd ainrr chayttsh mias following . bthyi olipgehnt taanle bsethceasuisae the dog's apnea is caused 40. Propofol:
bradycardia could be appropriately treated with intravenous administration w a. is very irritating when administered
any of the following agents except: d. are not bound to plasma proteins 36. Concerning use of thiopental in cats, which perivascularly
a. lidocaine e. produce effects that can be reversed with statement is most accurate? b. should be administered intramuscularly
because it is a colloidal solution
naloxone
b. atropine a. Thiopental should not be used in cats because c. is dissolved in a soybean oil/egg lecithin
c. nalorphine w they are more sensitive to the drug and more emulsion
d. naloxone 32. Which property of thiobarbiturates accounts for prone to toxicity than are dogs. d. should be refrigerated because it is unstable
e. butorphanol their short duration ofa ction? b., It can be given intramuscularly or at room temperature
subcutaneously to cats.
a. rapidly metabolized e. can be used in multidose vials because it
28. As an analgesic, butorphanol: b. quickly deposited in musclwe and fat depots c. It is an appropriate choice for uremic, contains a bacteriostatic agent
dehydrated cats.
c. distributed in extracellular tissues
a. has a longer duration of action than morphine
d. rapid renal clearance
b. is completely antagonized by naloxone
e. Hoffman elimination
© 1998 Mosby-Year Book, Inc. Photocopying is prohibited by law.
Correct answers are on pages 25-33.
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6 SECTION 1 Anesthesiology 7
41. Concerning ketamine, which statement is /east 45. Major classes ofd rugs usually considered 50. To produce epidural anesthesia inm a dog, a local 54. Hypotension occurring during spinal anesthesia
preanesthetic medications include all the anesthetic drug should be injected at the: may be due to:
accurate?
following except: a. sacrococcygeal junction to avoid recumbency a. preganglionic sympathetic blockade
a. It is preferable to thiamylal as an induction
agent in patients with impaired a. dissocia tives b. junction of the fifth and sixth lumbar b. blockade of nerves to the adrenal medulla
cardiovascular function. b. opioids vertebrae to ensure mixing with cerebrospinal c. muscular paralysis
b. It can be combined with acepromazine, c. hypnotics fluid o d. loss of spinal fluid
c. lumbosacral space, between the periosteum
diazepam, or xylazine. d. sympathomimetics e. venous constriction
and dura mater
c. It can cause hallucinations in human beings. e. neuroleptanalgesics
d. lumbosacral spcace, between the pia mater
d. It should never be administered and arachnoid 55. Epidural local anesthesia may cause any of the
intramuscularly. 46. Concerning injectable anesthetics, which e. lumbosacral junction, between the pia mater following except:
e. Ihty mpearyr ebfele axsivsoe crieactoevde wriietsh. rough, statement is most accurate? and arac.hnoid a. central nervous system depression and
a. TIletamine is an opioid. seizures
b. Thiamylal is a hypnotic. 51. If2% lidobcaine is appropriately administered b. hypotension
42. Ketamine: c. Detomidine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer. epidurally to a dog at 1 mll3 to 4.5 kg, the dog is c. respiratory muscle paralysis
a. causes tachycardia and hypertension via d. Propofol is a dissociative. not likely to: d. local tissue inflammation
sympathetic stimulation e. Meperidine is a benzodiazepine. a. obecome recumbent and have hind limb e. analgesia of 12 hours' duration
b. causes circulatory depression analgesia
c. decreases intraocular pressure 47. Dogs are given neuroleptanalgesic combinations b. remain ambulatory and have only partial hind 56. An advantage ofb upivacaine over lidocaine for
d. decreases cerebral blood flow and intracranial to achieve profound sedation and analgesia. An tlimb analgesia epidural anesthesia for cesarean section in dogs is
pressure example of this combination is: c. maintain function of the diaphragm and that bupivacaine:
e. decreases myocardial oxygen consumption a. atropine and acepromazine tintercostal muscles a. has a short duration of action
b. droperidol and glycopyrrolate od. have analgesia of the ventral midline caudal b. has minimal placental transfer and fetal
43. Ketamine is a good choice for anesthetic to the umbilicus uptake
c. oxymorphone and thiopental
induction in a: e. remain alert c. does not cause vasodilation and hypotension
d. butorphanol and ketamine
a. cat with an elevated blood urea nitrogen level d. is more concentrated than lidocaine
e. fentanyl and acepromazine k
and a history of chronic renal failure 52. Which of the following provides surgical e. has fewer cardiac effects than lidocaine when
b. dog that has been hit by a car and has analgesia of more than 2 hours'duration when inadvertently given intravenously
evidence of head trauma 48. Parenteral administration of which drug causes administered epidurally in an appropriate dose?
some visceral analgesia? l
c. cat with hyperthyroidism and a resting heart a. bupivacaine 0.5% (Marcaine) 57. When attempting to administer an epidural local
rate of 200 beats/min a. ketamine a b. lidocaine 2% (Xylocaine) anesthetic to a dog at the lumbosacral junction,
d. brachycephalic dog with upper airway b. acepromazine c. morphine at 0.5 mg/rnl (Duramorph) you aspirate cerebrospinal fluid. The most
obstruction c. glycopyrrolate d. mepivacaine 2% (Carbocaine) appropriate course ofa ction is to:
e. male cat with a history of urethral obstruction d. pentobarbital . e. meperidine at 50 mg/rnl (Demerol) a. not administer any epidural anesthetic but
e. atracurium instead use general anesthesia for the
w
44. Concerning preanesthetic agents, which procedure
53. An epidural local anesthetic block in dogs should
statement is /east accurate? 49. All the following drugs are almost completely be used with caution or is contraindicated in: b. administer the local anesthetic as planned
a. Meperidine is used for premedication and metabolized by the liver before renal excretion c. substitute morphine for lidocaine as the local
pain relief. except: a. a pregnant bitch presented for cesarean anesthetic
section
b. Glycopyrrolate may be used for a. diazepam w b. a dog with anal fistulae d. administer the local anesthetic but at one
premedication to reduce the incidence of third less than the calculated dose
b. thiopental c. an old dog requiring repair of a ruptured
vagus-mediated bradycardia. e. keep trying until you correctly place the
c. fentanyl cranial cruciate ligament
c. Ketamine is an excellent example of a needle in the epidural space
d. glycopyrrolate d. a dog with sacral fractures following
hypnotic premedicant. w
e. ketamine automobile trauma
d. Some premedicants may prolong recovery
e. a dog with an infected phalangeal joint
from general anesthesia.
requiring toe amputation
e. An advantage of many premedicants is that they
reduce the amount of anesthetic agent required
to induce and maintain general anesthesia.
© 1998 Mosby-Year Book, Inc. Photocopying is prohibited by law. Correct answers are on pages 25-33.
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8 SECTION 1
Anesthesiology 9
58. To produce spinal anesthesia, a local anesthetic d. as the sole anesthetic agent provides sufficient 66. Which of the following is lWt a mcharacteristic of d. should only be used with halothane
should be injected: analgesia for surgery an ideal inhalation agent?
e. should be used in closed-circuit anesthesia
e. does not produce forelimb analgesia
a. between the pia mater and arachnoid a. nonflammable and nonexplosive at clinical
b. between the arachnoid and dura mater concentrations
71. Concerning nitrous oxide, which statement is
dc.. ibnettow teheen e tphied upriaa lm spaatecre and spinal cord 62. Aisso cfloumrapnaer ehda sw: ith halothane or methoxyflurane, b. lionwdu scotliuobni laintyd i nre bcoloovoedry a anrde triaspsuide s so that least accurate?
e. in the intramedullary area a. lower solubility, resulting in rapid changes in c. low fat solubility a. It should not be used in patients with
conditions involving gas pockets, such as a
anesthetic depth d. high solubility in blood and tissues so that
pneumothorax.
b. less effect on cardiac and pulmonary function saturation is cmore rapid and induction is
59. When attempting to administer epidural hastened b. It is the most soluble inhalation anesthetic
morphine to a dog at the lumbosacral junction, c. greater potential to produce catecholamine and rapidly moves into and out of the body.
you obtain cerebrospinal fluid. The most induced arrhythmias e. only minimally metabolized and excreted
appropriate course ofa ction is to: d. greater potency largely u.nchanged c. It can cause diffusion of hypoxemia at the end
of inhalation anesthesia.
e. a more rapid rate of metabolism
a. not administer any morphine but rather use b d. It requires high fresh gas flows, increasing the
parenteral analgesia 67. Which inhalation anesthetic is subject to the cost of anesthesia.
greatest degree ofm etabolism?
b. administer the epidural dose of morphine as 63. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) ofa n e. It is not scavenged by activated charcoal.
planned inhalation anesthetic preventing response to a a. nitrous oxide
o
c. use fentanyl instead of morphine standard noxious stimulus is a measure ofp otency. b. halothane 72. Methoxyflurane:
d. administer morphine but at one third less Of the following, which does lWt affect MAC? c. methoxyflurane
than the calculated dose a. age d. desflurane a. is very potent (MAC 0.23 vol%) and so should
e. use lidocaine instead of morphine b. hypothermia te. isoflurane not be administered in simple in-circuit
vaporizers
c. concurrent administration of sedatives and t b. has a low vapor pressure and can easily
60. Morphine for epidural/spinal use (Duramorph) is tranquilizers 68. Which inhalation anesthetic agent is most likely produce dangerously high concentrations
sold in 1 O-ml glass vials at a concentration of0 .5 d. duration of anesthesia oto induce cardiac arrhythmias in the presence of c. is flammable in clinical concentrations
mglml. Morphine for parenteral administration is e. pregnancy elevated blood levels ofc atecholamines?
d. is effective in low concentrations
sold in multiple-dose rubber-topped vials at a
concentration of1 5 mglml. Morphine for a. isoflurane e. produces poor muscle relaxation
epidural/spinal use is packaged in smaller vials 64. Which inhalation agent is most potent? k b. nitrous oxide
and at a lower concentration because: a. halothane c. methoxyflurane 73. Renal tubular damage can occur in dogs
a. drugs at concentrations greater than 1 mg/rnl b. nitrous oxide l d. halothane subjected to prolonged methoxyflurane
should not be administered epidurally c. isoflurane e. desflurane administration and is secondary to:
a
b. solutions in multiple-dose vials are less d. methoxyflurane a. myocardial depression
convenient to use than solutions in glass vials e. propofol 69. Increasing depth ofi nhalation anesthesia is b. hepatic necrosis
c. the volume of morphine used in epidural accompanied by: c. toxic effects of fluoride ions
anesthesia is small 65. Mask induction ofa nesthesia using inhalation . a. a marked increase in cardiac output d. hypoxia that occurs at 1.5 times the maximum
d. the morphine in the two solutions is different agents is: w b. an increase in total ventilation per minute alveolar concentration
e. the morphine solution supplied in glass vials e. hypotension
a. the best way to induce anesthesia in a patient c. an increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension
is preservative free and intended for single
patient use with an upper airway obstruction d. a decrease in dead space ventilation
b. best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic e. an increase in arterial blood pH and a 74. The term second-gas effect refers to:
that is highly soluble in blood, such as decrease in respiratory frequency
61. In dogs presented for hind limb surgery. epidural methoxyflurane w a. increased ventilation caused by nitrous oxide
injection ofmorphine: b. displacement of oxygen from the alveoli by
c. best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic 70. Nitrous oxide: rapid escape of nitrous oxide from the blood
a. increases the requirement for other anesthetic that is relatively insoluble in blood, such as
during recovery from anesthesia
drugs halothane a. has no analgesic activity
c. the additive effect of inhalation anesthetics
b. decreases the requirement for other d. not influenced by the adeqwuacy of ventilation b. should not be used in concentrations less
anesthetic drugs e. less expensive than routine parenteral than 80% when given in combination with nitrous oxide
d. distention of the bowel during inhalation of
c. does not change the requirement for other anesthetic inductions c. is not sufficiently potent to produce nitrous oxide
anesthetic drugs anesthesia in dogs
e. low arterial oxygen levels caused by fresh gas
mixtures that are less than 95% oxygen
© 1998 Mosby-Year Book, Inc. Photocopying is prohibited by law.
Correct answers are on pages 25-33.
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