1 NEET ACADEMY TEST-SERIES NEET-PG ALL INDIA WEEKLY 2nd MOCK EXAM

50 Pages·2011·0.41 MB·English

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NEET ACADEMY TEST-SERIES
NEET-PG ALL INDIA WEEKLY 2nd MOCK EXAM -SEPT. 2011

Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory. Time allocated - 3 hours. Total Questions - 180.
2. Select the correct answer from the drop-down list appearing on right-hand side of each answer-cell.
3. Results will be declared tentatively by Sunday 11PM with All-India Rank[AIR].
4. Each correct answer carries 1 mark. Each incorrect answer will attract penalty of -0.25 Mark
5. Zero marks for UNATTEMPTED questions.
6. Attempt the paper honestly without referring notes or any of the books.
7. For any assistance during the exam, please contact NEET Academy on Google Chat/Talk.
8. After attempting all the questions, save the answer sheet. Attach the answer-sheet to your mail
and send it at the end of 3 Hours to: [email protected]
9. Please fill your Full Name, 10-Digit Mobile number, Email-ID correctly in the answer-sheet.
10. Register for the next weekly mock exam at: www.neetacademy.blogspot.com
11. Wishing you all the best for your PG exams. May Almighty Blessings be with you!
12. The exam is divided into two sections. Both the sections are COMPULSORY.
Section A contains a total of 108 questions of single correct choice MCQs.
Section B contains a total of 72 questions of true-false, assertion-reasoning & patient-management
questions.

DETAILED Explanatory Answers Will Be Published In Next Few Weeks.

To Register For Next Test Please Visit: neetacademy.blogspot.com

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Section A

Note: Read the questions carefully. And then mark the correct answer carefully in the answer sheet.
Q.1. Vitamin B9 is also known as :

a) vitamin B complex
b) complex carbohydrates
c) coenzyme Q10
d) folic acid

Q.2. The parents of a 6-month-old child who was normal at birth bring her into the clinic. Since their
emigration to the U.S. from Eastern Europe soon after her birth, the child has developed diminished
responsiveness , progressive blindness and deafness, and recently, seizures. Serum levels of which of the
following compounds would be expected to be decreased in both of the parents?
a) Dystrophin
b) Hexosaminidase A
c) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)
d) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Q.3. A 38 year old woman being treated for hypertension and diabetes has the sudden onset of swelling
and tenderness of the wrists and knees. On examination she is febrile and flushed. A friction rub can be
heard at the left lower sternal border. Which of the following drugs is most likely the cause of these
findings ?
a) Metformin
b) Hydralazine
c) Minoxidil
d) Nitroprusside

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Q.4. 3yr old child presented with an exfoliative skin infection of the arm. On examination the infected
area showed flaccid bullae. The pus was collected from the skin lesions and cultured on nutrient agar.
The colonies were large, circular, convex, shiny & opaque. The bacteria also produced a golden yellow
pigment on the culture media.
A likely infective organism is
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pyogens
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Q.5. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
(NIDDM) has no effect on the secretion of insulin?
a. Acetohexamide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Glyburide
d. Metformin

Q.6. A child psychiatrist would like to evaluate the intellectual ability of a 3-year-old patient. Which of
the following is the most appropriate test for him to use?
a. Denver Developmental Scale
b. Stanford-Binet Scale
c. WAIS-R
d. WISC III

Q.7. The smooth part of the right atrium derives from which of the following embryonic structures
a. Bulbus cordis
b. Primitive atrium
c. Primitive ventricle
d. Sinus venosus

Q.8. Following an American football training session a player experienced an acute left flank pain that
lasted 4 to 5 hours and was accompanied by macroscopic hematuria and marked tenderness in the left
costovertebral angle. A large mass was palpable in the left loin. Investigation demonstrated proteinuria
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and a rapid deterioration in renal function. An intravenous pyelogram was obtained, and it showed
marked enlargement of the left kidney with poor visualization of pelvocalyceal system. The most likely
diagnosis is
a) polycystic disease of the kidneys
b) Berger's nephritis
c) systemic lupus erythematosus
d) renal vein thrombosis

Q.9. A young girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever. All of the following manifestations are recognised
as part of the Jones major criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic fever except
a) migratory polyarthritis of large joints
b) carditis
c) erythema marginatum
d) elevated serum titers of antibodies to streptolysin O (ASO)

Q.10. A 42-year-old man with acute renal failure is confused. His serum potassium is 8.1 mEq/L . The
most likely abnormal ECG finding is
a) T wave inversion
b) PR interval of 300ms
c) U wave
d) tall tented T waves

Q.11. A 68 year old homeless man is admitted to the hospital. He complains of lightning like pains in his
legs and belly. He walks with a dramatic marked sway and is visibly uncoordinated. It is very difficult for
the intern to get any sort of medical history from him, so he summons the resident. On physical
examination, the intern notices that there is a sensory deficit affecting both of his legs. He does not have
the ability to detect vibratory sensation. When his big toe is moved, the man guesses the correct
orientation about half the time. The intern asks him to stand with his feet together. He comments to the
chief resident that 'he does not sway'. The chief resident then asks him to close his eyes, and comments
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to the intern, 'he sways'. Neither intern nor resident is able to elicit Achilles or patellar reflex. His
strength and muscle tone are adequate. What condition should be included in the differential diagnosis?
a. Friedreich's ataxia
b. tabes dorsalis
c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d. cerebellar ataxia

Q.12. An otherwise healthy 3-year-old child is brought to the pediatrician with umbilicated, flesh-
colored papules on his trunk. This condition is related to infection with which of the following viruses?
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Herpesvirus 6
c) Parvovirus
d) Poxvirus

Q.13. Contralateral fibres from the same sided optic nerve end up in which layers of the lateral
geniculate ganglion ?
a) 2,3 and 5
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 2 and 6
d) 1,4 and 6

Q.14. A 55 year old man has angina. One day, while cleaning the garage, he has a sudden onset of chest
pain. He rests for a while, but the pain does not stop. He finally calls an ambulance and is taken to the
hospital and is told he had a myocardial infarction. What pathologic process will be predominant a few
hours after his myocardial infarction?
a) collagen synthesis
b) contraction of tissue
c) coagulative necrosis
d) influx of eosinophils, lymphocytes and plasma cells

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Q.15. Among women aged 18 to 34 in a community, weight is normally distributed with a mean of 52 kg
and a standard deviation of 7.5 kg. What percentage of women will have a weight over 59.5 kg?
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 16%

Q.16. Which of the following conditions has been associated with a false-positive Fluorescent
Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTAABS) test?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Mononucleosis
c. Lyme disease
d. Viral pneumonia

Q.17. Which of the following vaccines is CONTRAINDICATED during pregnancy?
a. Hepatitis B vaccine
b. Varicella vaccine
c. Influenza vaccine
d. Tetanus toxoid

Q.18. The primary effect of lactobacilli in the adult vagina is to
A. maintain an alkaline environment.
B. maintain an acidic environment.
C. produce a protective mucus layer.
D. increase fertility.
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Q.19. A culture of bacteria not resistant to tetracycline develops an infection from a virus that is derived
from the lysis of tetracycline-resistant bacteria. Most of the bacterial progeny of the original culture is
found to have become resistant to tetracycline. What phenomenon has occurred?
a. Conjugation
b. Colinearity
c. Recombination
d. Transduction

Q.20. The first drug to be effective against AIDS, including the reduction of maternal-to-child AIDS
transmission by 30%, was AIDS drug azidothymidine (AZT). Which of the following describes its
mechanism of action?
a. It inhibits viral protein synthesis
b. It inhibits RNA synthesis
c. It inhibits viral DNA polymerase
d. It inhibits viral reverse transcriptase

Q.21. Which statement about the “genetic code” is most accurate?
a. Information is stored as sets of dinucleotide repeats called codons
b. The code is degenerate (i.e., more than one codon may exist for a single amino acid)
c. Information is stored as sets of trinucleotide repeats called codons
d. There are 64 codons, all of which code for amino acids

Q.22. Which of the following results is provided by northern blot analysis?
a. Detects specific base pairs
b. Detects DNA molecules
c. Detects RNA molecules
d. Detects proteins

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Q.23. Most thalassemias are the result of mutations causing
a. Increased gamma-chain synthesis
b. “Sticky” hemoglobin
c. RNA processing or production defects
d. Protein folding problems

Q.24. The greatest buffering capacity at physiologic pH would be provided by a protein rich in which of
the following amino acids?
a. Lysine
b. Histidine
c. Aspartic acid
d. Valine

Q.25. The highest concentration of cystine can be found in
a. Melanin
b. Chondroitin sulfate
c. Myosin
d. Keratin

Q.26. Contraction of skeletal muscle is initiated by the binding of calcium to
a. Tropomyosin
b. Troponin
c. Myosin
d. Actomyosin

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Q.27. Which one of the following enzymes is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Hexokinase
d. Phosphoglycerate kinase

Q.28. A 25-year-old female presents with a history of losing four pregnancies in the past 5 years. She
also has a history of recurrent pains in her legs secondary to recurrent thrombosis. Her symptoms are
most likely due to a deficiency of
a. PA inhibitors
b. Protein C
c. Plasmin
d. Thrombin

Q.29. A 4-year-old male with mental retardation, self-mutilation, and hyperuricemia is likely to have a
deficiency of an enzyme involved in the
a. Conversion of homogentisic acid to methylacetoacetate
b. Degradation of galactocerebroside
c. Breakdown of branched-chain amino acids
d. Recycling of guanine and hypoxanthine.

Q.30. A biopsy of an enlarged salivary gland from an individual with Sjögren’s syndrome is most likely to
histologically reveal an extensive infiltrate of
a. Basophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Epithelioid cells
d. Lymphocytes
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Q.31. Lobar pneumonia is caused predominantly by
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Staphylococcus pyogenes
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q.32. A 27-year-old male develops acute diarrhea consisting of foulsmelling, watery stools, along with
severe abdominal cramps and flatulence, after returning from a trip to the Caribbean. The associated
photomicrograph is from a duodenal aspiration smear. These signs and symptoms are caused by
infection with

a. Acanthamoeba
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. E. vermicularis
d. Giardia lamblia

Q.33. Primary type II hyperlipidemia (familial hypercholesterolemia) results
from a defect in
a. Lipoprotein lipase
b. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptor
c. Apolipoprotein E
d. Apolipoprotein CII
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